Federal Government Scholarship Past Questions And Answers pdf

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  1. Growth does not overwhelm order and order does not deny growth. It can be informed from
    this statement that
    a. The relationship between growth and order is foreign.
    b. Growth and order coexist in so far as one leads to the other.
    c. It is probable for order to exist without growth and not vice versa.
    d. Growth and order are mutually exclusive.
  2. For this question and the next, four sentences are given, Select the option that has been written
    according to the requirement of standard English.
    a. We’ll need to do a series of tests before we do anything else.
    b. We’ll need to do series of test before we do anything else.
    c. We’ll need to do the series of test before we do anything else
    d. We’ll need to do series of tests before we do anything else
  3. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct in English language.
    a. The book is their’s but it’s very old.
    b. The book is theirs but its very old.
    c. The book is theirs’ but its’ very old.
    d. The book is theirs but it’s very old.
  4. For this question and the next, choose the option that best interprets the given sentence. The
    teacher is the one who has the last word.
    a. He is the one that will give the closing remarks.
    b. He is the one that will make the final decision.
    c. He is the one that will argue for the others.
    d. He will be the first to leave at the end.
  5. “I cannot for the life of me see why he married her.”
    a. I cannot tell when he married her.
    b. I cannot interfere with their married life.
    c. I cannot understand why he married her.
    d. I cannot for any reason allow her to marry him.
    In each of questions 6 and 7, choose the option that best completes the gap(s).
  6. You should be _ about the new machine and also __ not to spoil it.
    a. cautious/careful
    b. Careful/cautious
    c. Careful/careful
    d. caring/careful
  7. Our health teacher always says that it is important to _ thoroughly in order for proper _ to occur.
    a. rankle/temerity
    b. mitigate/digestion
    c. digest/transmutation
    d. masticate/digestion
    In each of questions 8 and 9, choose the option that represents the given phrase or clause.
  8. A small group of people who are involved in secret plans to get political power.
    a. Coup
    b. Cabal
    c. Stalwort
    d. Dissident
  9. The job of writing a dictionary.
    a. Lexicography
    b. Cartography
    c. Bibliographer
    d. Philology
    In each of questions 10 and 11. choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the
    underlined word.
  10. Sule is known for his misogynism
    a. Hatred for mankind
    b. Love for gymnastics
    c. Hatred for women
    d. love of women.
  11. Our teacher has an effervescent behaviour.
    a. Antagonistic
    b. Complacent
    c. Enthusiastic
    d. Unwanted
    In each of the questions 12 and 13, choose the option opposite in meaning to the underlines
    word or phrase.
  12. He enjoys the hurly-burly of political debates.
    a. Confusion
    b. Tranquility
    c. Turbulence
    d. Joy
  13. She started off being quite matey with everyone.
    a. Amiable
    b. Unfriendly
    c. Harsh
    d. Pleasant
  14. Which of the following words below is correctly spelt.
    a. Kwashiorkor
    b. Kwashiorkor
    c. Kwarshiorkor
    d. Kwasheokor
  15. Which of the following is correctly spelt?
    a. Lymphocyte
    b. Lymphocyete
    c. Lymphocyte
    d. Lymphosyte
  16. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is fifty (50) years. What is the
    age of the youngest child?
    a. Three years
    b. Four years
    c. Five years
    d. Seven years
  17. Seun, Tayo and Dayo are to share N120 in the ratio 4:3:2 respectively. What is the sum of the
    shares of Seun and Dayo?
    a. N93.33
    b. N80.00
    c. N66.67
    d. N40.00
  18. The headquarters of the WAEC international is in?
    a. The Gambia
    b. Nigeria
    c. Ghana
    d. Sierra Leone
  19. The Nigeria National Anthem was adopted in?
    a. 1976
    b. 1977
    c. 1978
    d. 1979
  20. In a computer system, using Windows Operating System, a file deleted in a computer can be
    restored from the
    a. Shortcuts
    b. Recycle Bin
    c. Programs
    d. Control Panel
  21. USB is an acronym for
    a. Universal Serial Bus
    b. Universal System Backbone
    c. Universal Software Business
    d. Universal Study Bundle
  22. A digital computer operates on binary digits of
    a. 0 and 10
    b. 1 and 10
    c. 10 and 20
    d. 0 and 1
  23. The Arithmetic and Logical Unit is in what section of the computer
    a. CPU
    b. UPS
    c. Monitor
    d. Scanner
  24. Which of the following can be used as a primary storage device?
    a. Digital Versatile disk
    b. Magnetic drum
    c. PROM
    d. RAM
  25. What is the full meaning of HTML?
    A. Hyper Technology Mark-Up Logarithm
    B. Hyper Text Materials Logistics
    C. Hyper Text Mark-Up Language
    D. Higher Transfer Protocol Language
  26. What is the nearest in meaning to vacuous?
    a. Unintelligent
    b. Brave
    c. Angry
    d. Stubborn
  27. Which of the following is a programming Language
    a. Ms-Word
    b. English
    c. Fortran
    d. French
  28. The average ages of three persons is 27 years. Their ages are in the proportion of 1:3:5.What is
    the age in years of the youngest one among them
    a. 11
    b. 9
    c. 7
    d. 6
  29. An aeroplane covers a certain distance at a speed of 240 kmph in 5 hours. To cover the same
    distance in 1 hours, it must travel at a speed of:
    a. 300
    b. 360
    c. 700
    d. 720
  30. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 3, 4, 5, and 6?
    a. 30
    b. 48
    c. 75
    d. 120
  31. Marathon is to race as hibernation is to
    a. Winter
    b. Bear
    c. Dream
    d. Sleep
  32. Who founded the first political party in Nigeria?
    a. Obasanjo Olusegun
    b. Osama Mark
    c. Are Onakoni
    d. Herbert Macaulay
  33. If 12% of x is equal to 6% of y, then 18% of x will be equal to how much percent of y?
    a. 7%
    b. 9%
    c. 11%
    d. None of the above
  34. If a number is 20% more than the other, how much percent is the second number less than the
    a. 121
    b. 162
    c. 161
    d. None of these
  35. If A’s income is 25% less than that of B, then how much percent is B’s income more than that of
    a. 331
    b. 662
    c. 112
    d. None of the above
  36. If the given two numbers are respectively 7% and 28% of a third number, then what percentage
    is the first of the second?
    a. 20%
    b. 25%
    c. 18%
    d. None of the above
  37. Two numbers are respectively 60% and 20% more than a third number, Second number
    expressed as a percentage of first is
    a. 75%
    b. 90%
    c. 80%
    d. None of the above
  38. Two numbers are less than a third number by thirty percent and thirty seven percent
    respectively. How much percent is the second less than the first?
    a. 15%
    b. 10%
    c. 20%
    d. None of the above
  39. Two numbers are respectively twenty percent and ten percent more than a third number. How
    much percent is the first number more than the second?
    a. 9
    b. 7
    c. 11 1
    d. None of the above
    PC => Personal computer
    HDD => Hard disk drive
    PCI => Peripheral component interconnect
    GUI => Graphic user interface
    VGA => Visual graphic adaptor
    ASCII => American standard code for information interchange
    EBCDIC => Extended binary coded decimal interchange code
    CPU => Central processing unit
    ALU => Arithmetic and logic unit
    ROM => Read only memory
    RAM => Random access memory
    PROM => Programmable read only memory
    EPROM => Erasable programmable read only memory
    EEPROM/EAPROM => Electrical erasable/alterable programmable read only memory
    ICT => Information communication technology
    VDU => Visual display unit
    CD => Compact disk
    DVD => Digital versatile disc
    OS => Operating system
    LAN => Local area network
    WAN => Wide area network
    MAN => Metropolitan area network
    USB => Universal serial board
    UNIVAC => Universal automatic computer
    BIOS => Basic input and output system
    AGP => Accelerated graphic port
    IDE => Integrated drive electronics
    ATX => Advanced technology extended
    MHZ => Megahertz
    GHZ => Gigahertz
    RW => Re-writeable
    SIMMs => Single in-line memory module
    DIMMs => Dual in-line memory module
    ENIAC => Electronic number integrator & calculator
    EDSAC => Electronic dialog storage automatic computer
    IC => Integrated circuit
    DIR => Directory
    DOC => Document
    PDA => Personal digital assistance
    MOS => Metaoxide semi conductor
    SDT => Serial data transmission
    PDT => Parallel data transmission
    GIGO => Gabbage in gabbage out
    LSIC => Large scale integrated circuit
    MAC => Media access control
    CMD => Command
    CMOS => Complimentary metaoxide semi conductor
    PAN => Personal area network
    CAN => Campus area network
    SQL => Structured query language
    DBMS => Database management system
    ISP => Internet service provider
    SIM => Subscriber identification module
    FORTRAN => Formular translator
    URL => Universal resource locator
    COBOL => Common basic oriented language
    BASIC => Beginner all purpose symbolic instruction code
    CSS => Cascading style sheet
    XXS => Cross site scripting
    HTML => Hypertext markup language
    RFI => Remote file inclusion
    DDOS => Distribution denial of service
    SEO => Search engine optimisation
    PHP => PHP Hypertext preprocessor
    WWW => World wide web
    TCP => Transmission control protocol
    IP => Internet protocol
    VPN => Virtual private network
    HTTP => Hypertext transfer protocol
    CCNA => Cisco certified network associate
    XML => Extensible mark-up language
    CISCO => computer information system company
    CEH => Certified ethical hacking
    CCNP => Cisco certified network proffessionals
    USSD => Unstructured supplementary service data.

Table of Contents

1. Who formed the first political party in Nigeria?

Answer: Herbert Macauly

2. What was the first political party in Nigeria?

Answer: Nigerian National Democratic party (NNDP)

3. Who is the current president of Nigeria?

Answer: Muhammadu Buhari

4. Who is the current vice president of Nigeria?

Answer: Yemi Osibajo

5. What does the eagle in the Nigerian coat of arm represent?

Answer: Strength

6. What do the two horses on the Nigerian coat of arm represent?

Answer: Dignity

7. What was the black shield in the Nigerian coat of arm stand for?

Answer: Nigerian’s fertile soil

8. What does the white colour in Nigerian flag stand for?

Answer: Peace

9. What does the green colour in Nigerian flag represent?

Answer: Forests and abundant natural wealth of Nigeria

10. Nigeria is divided into how many geopolitical zones?

Answer: Six (6) geopolitical zones

11. What was the first capital city in Nigeria?

Answer: Calabar

12. What is the capital of Nigeria Now?

Answer: Abuja

13. Who is the current Nigerian Deputy Senate president?

Answer: Senator Ike Ekweremadu

14. What is the name of Nigerian senior national team in football?

Answer: Super Eagles

15. When did Nigerian Golden eaglets win the world under-17 FIFA world cup

Answer: 1985, 1993, 2007, 2013

16. Who was the first female vice chancellor in Nigerian university?

Answer: Grace Alele Williams

17. Who gave Nigeria her name:

Answer: Flora Shaw

18. Who designed the Nigerian flag?

Answer: Michael Taiwo Akinkunmi

19. Who was the first man to buy a car in Nigeria?

Answer: Bob Jensen

20. Who was the first woman to buy a car in Nigeria?

Answer: Funmilayo Ransome Kuti

21. Who was the first woman to drive a car in Nigeria?

Answer: Funmilayo Ransome Kuti

22. What is the first TV station in Nigeria?

Answer: Western Nigerian Government Broadcasting Corporation (WNTV) in 1959

23. When was Nigeria formed?

Answer: 1914

24. Where was crude oil first discovered in Nigeria?

Answer: Oloibiri Oilfield, located in Oloibiri in Ogbia LGA of Bayelsa State

25. Who was the first Nigerian to become a Noble Laureate?

Answer: Wole Soyinka

26. Who is the Nigerian current speaker of house of Assembly?

Answer: Yakubu Dogara

27. What is the premier university in Nigeria?

Answer: University of Ibadan

28. Who is the minister for education in Nigeria?

Answer: Adamu Adamu

29. Who is the current chief justice of Nigeria?

Answer: Walter Onnogen.

30. When did Nigeria have her independent?

Answer: 1st October 1960

31. When Nigeria did become a republic?

Answer: 1st October 1963

32. When was the first military coup carried out in Nigeria?

Answer: 1966

33. How many local Government do we have in Nigeria?

Answer: 774

34. Who is the first Nigerian president?

Answer: Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe

35. Who was Nigerian first executive president?

Answer: Alhaji Shehu Aliyu Shagari

36. Who was the Nigerian first prime minister?

Answer: Abubakar Tafawa Balewa

37. What is the largest continent in the world?

Answer: ASIA with population of 3,641,000,000 while Australia & Oceania is the smallest

38. What are the five Oceans in the world?

Answer: Pacific Ocean, Atlantic Ocean, Indian Ocean, Southern Ocean, Arctic Ocean

39. What is the full meaning of UNICEF?

Answer: United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund

40. Who is the current Senate President in Nigeria?

Answer: Senator Bukola Saraki

41. Which country’s flag is called the Union Jack?

Answer: Great Britain

42. When did Nigeria became a Republic?

Answer: 1963

43. What is centenary?

Answer: 100 years

44. What is Nigeria?

Answer: Nigeria officially the Federal Republic of Nigeria, is a federal constitutional
republic comprising 36 states and its Federal Capital Territory, Abuja. Nigeria is located in
West Africa and shares land borders with the Republic of Benin in the west, Chad and
Cameroon in the east, and Niger in the north.

45. Who won the 2015 Nigerian presidential general election?

Answer: General Muhammadu Buhari

  1. Who formed the first political party in Nigeria?
    A Obasanjo
    B Osama
    C Obi
    D Herbert Macauly
  2. What was the first political party in Nigeria?
    A APC
    B PDP
    C NNDP
    D AD
  3. Who is the current president of Nigeria?
    A. Obasanjo
    B. Saraki
    C. Buhari
    D. Jonathan
  4. Who is the current vice president of Nigeria?
    A. Osinbanja
    B. Atiku
    C. Peter obi
    D. Namadi sambo

5. What does the eagle in the Nigerian coat of arm

A peace
B Terror
C. Agriculture
D. Strength
Answer: Strength

  1. Representative democracy is best characteristic by
    (A) free elections and proper registers of voters
    (B) a politically educated electorate
    (C) rule by the interest group
    (D) proper constituencies and a real choice of candidates
  2. While political partial parties aim at forming a government pressure groups aim at
    (A) causing social unrest (B) influencing governmental decisions
    (C) controlling nation’s economy (D) getting workers to unite
  3. When the electorate vote for representatives who is turn vote on their behalf we say it is
    (A) an indirect election(B) an unfair election (C) a disputed election (D) a rigged electron
  4. An election which is conducted to fill a vacant seat in a legislature is called a
    (A) by election (B) general election (C) referendum (D) plebiscite
  5. Which of these countries does NOT operate a federal constitution
    (A)USA (B) Nigeria (C) Canada (D) France
  6. The major advantage of the secret ballot is that
    (A) it is faster than other systems
    (B) nobody can be prevented from voting
    (C) it ensures the anonymity of each voter
    (D) losers can ask for another secret voter
  7. In a one party state
    (A) there are no free citizens
    (B) the communist party is the only legal party
    (C) the ruling party is the only legal party
    (D) elections to be legislature are held at the party’s conferences
  8. A cabinet system of government is practiced in
    (A) Britain and Canada
    (B) the soviet union
    (C) all European Countries including Britain
    (D) the United State of America
  9. A proclamation by the head of state ending a session of parliament is called
    (A) a dissolution (B) an adjournment (C) a prorogation (D) a devolution
  10. The constitution of the federal republic of Nigeria
    (A) promotes unity of diversity
    (B) allows for the dominance of the minority ethnic groups
    (C) concentrates governmental power at on one level of government
    (D) ensures the dominance of one political party.
  11. The transfer of authority to local government council is known as
    (A) delegation (B) fusion (C) fragmentation
    (D) devolution
  12. The principle of anonymity of civil servants means that they
    (A) are not the servant of a particular government(B) are trained for the duties they perform(C)
    are credited or
    for any thing they do (D) have a career
  13. The six registered political parties in Nigeria in 1982 were
    (A) UPN, NPN, PPA, PPP, NPP, and NAP
    (D) NPC, GNPP, PRP, UPN, NPP and PPA
  14. Which of the following is NOT a pressure group in Nigeria
    (A) farmers (B) the Nigerian union of teachers (NUT)(C) Nigeria medical associate (NMA) (D)
    academic staff union of university (ASUU)
  15. The N.C.N.C sent a delegation to London in 1947 to protest against the
    (A) burns constitution
    (B) Richards constitution
    (C) Littleton constitution
    (D) Macpherson constitution
  16. A popular principle of colonial administration in British west Africa was
    (A) association
    (B) indirect rule
    (C) paternalism
    (D) assimilation
  17. The first governor-general of colonial Nigeria was
    (A) sir, Hugh Clifford(B) sir James Robertson (C) lord Lugard(D) sir Ralph moore.
  18. The first military government in Nigeria was headed by
    (A) General Yakubu Gowon, (B) General Agunyi Ironsi
    (C) General M. Mohammed (D) General O. Obasanjo.
  19. The first general election in Nigeria was hold in
    (A) 1933 (B) 1952 (C) 1955 (D) 1959
  20. The supreme organ of the U.N O is the
    (A) general assembly (B) secretary general (C) world court (D) world bank
    1D 2C 3C 4A 5D 6A 7B 8A 9A 10D
    11C 12C 13A 14A 15A 16A 17C 18B 19A 20B
    21B 22C 23B 24D 25A
  21. Traditional rulers were restricted to ceremonial rules by the local government reforms of
    a. 1966 b. 1976 c. 1984 d.1987
  22. A parliamentary system, who ensures that members are in the house to vote on major issues
    a. Party leaders
    b. Speaker of the House
    c. Clerk of the House
    d. Whip
  23. A system in which no single person serves as the
    chief executive is known as a.
    Republican b. Revolutionary
    c. Collegial d. Parliamentary
  24. A social system in which power is derived from control over land is called
    a. Oligarchy b. Feudalism
    c. Socialism d. Welfarism
  25. Rule of Law¬ refers to situation in which
    a. Lawyers are the rulers
    b. Laws are supreme
    c. The judiciary is independent
    d. Parliament makes laws
  26. An important principle of the civil service is
    a. Authoritarianism b. Anonymity
    c. Nepotism d. Partisanship
  27. Which of these constitution recognized local go
    vernment as the third tier of government
    a. The 1946 Constitution
    b. The 1960 constitution
    c. The 1963 constitution
    d. the 1979 constitution
  28. A condition for judicial independence is the app
    ointment of judges by the
    a. Civil service commission
    b. Judicial service Commission
    c. Low Review Commission
    d. The 1979 constitution
  29. The minorities Commission appointed in Nigeria in 1957 recommend that
    a. More states should be created in the federation
    b. No more states should created before independence
    c. Nigeria should revert to a unitary structure
    d. the legislature should Legislate for the minority areas
    e the minorities should constitute one state
  30. The second military coup in Nigeria took place on
    a January 15, 1966 b. October 1, 1966
    c. July 29, 1966 d. July 29, 1975
    e. February 13, 1976
  31. One of these was in existence before the outbreak of the second world war
    a. The OAU b. The League of Nations
    c. The UNO
    d. The Commonwealth of Nations
    e. ECOWAS
  32. An important advantage of creating more constitution in a federal state is to
    a. Enhance the Peoples participation
    b. Enable ambitious Politicians gain political power
    c. Make the states gain more power from the federal
    d. Curb the excess of the federal government
  33. Under the Presidential system
    a. The party with the majority of seat forms the Executive
    b. There is the principle of collective responsibility
    c. The president may come from any of the parties
    d. The states take instruction from the federal government
  34. Public opinion is important because it
    a. Tells government what action it must take
    b. Lets government know what the people want
    c. Allows Police to manage crisis
    d. Mothers the minorities in resource lean areas
    e. Guarantees peoples freedom and rights
  35. Bicameral legislature exists
    a. Where two cameras are used to monitor court proceedings
    b. To prevent the concentration of power on legislative house
    c. To provide jobs for more politicians
    d. To ensure that just laws are passed
  36. Africans were first elected to the legislative
    council in British West Africa in a. Ghana b. Sierra Leone
    c. The Gambia d. Nigeria
  37. One of the functions of the Ministry of externa
    l affairs is the
    a. Deportation of illegal aliens
    b. Issuance of Passports
    c. Defence of the Country’s Borders
    d. Promotion of national interests
  38. The leader of the Northern Peoples congress was
    a. Yakubu Maitama Sule
    b. AbubakarTafawa Balewa
    c. Aminu Kano
    d. Ahmadu Bello
  39. The idea of democracy started with the
    a. Romans b. Pensions d. Egyptians
  40. In the Marxist theory, those who live by sellin
    g their labour are called
    a. Bourgeoisie b. Proletariats c. Feudal lords d. Slaves
  41. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable mea
    ns of achieving democracy?
    a. Referendum b. Recall
    c. Initiative d. Riots
    22 The branch of government responsible for impleme
    nting laws is the
    a. Executives b. Legislature d. Police
  42. In a democracy, sovereignty is vested in a. The
    community b. Public officials
    c. Judges d. The head of State e. The Legislature
  43. Universal Adult Suffrage means all
    a. Adult citizens can vote
    b. Citizens vote
    c. Qualified citizens can vote
    d. Literate citizens can vote
    e. Adult males can vote
  44. A bill that applies to the whole population and
    is intended to promote the general
    welfare is called
    a. A private bill
    b. A decree
    c. An Appropriation bill
    d. A public deal
    e. An edict
  45. B 6.B 11.B 16.A 21D
  46. D 7.D 12.A 17. D 22.A
  47. D 8.B 13.C 18. D 23.A
  48. B 9.A 14.B 19. C 24.C
  49. B 10. C 15.B 20. B 25C
    (1) A human community that is usually cohesive and
    homogeneous is
    (A) nation (B) kinship (C) clan (D) nation
    (2) Which of the following made the earliest contac
    t with the Nigerian society ?
    (A) british (B) portuguese (C) french (D) german
    (3) Under the 1963 republican constitution,the pres
    ident excercised ?
    (A) judicial power (B) executive power (C) nominal
    power (D) concurrent powers
    (4) The principal of federal character was first e
    nunciated in the (A) 1989 constitution (B)1963 con
    stitution (C) 1999 constitution (D) 1979 constitution
    (5) Between 1960 and 1966 nigeria was governed un
    der the (A) presidential system (B) westminster sy
    stem (C) confederal system (D) unitary system
    (6) One major factor that differentiate the preside
    ntial from the parliament system isbr /> (A) separation of power (B) judicial indipendence (
    C) passage of bills (D) party system
    (7) A major feature of the policy of deregulation i
    n nigeria is the
    (A) enthronement of market forces mechanism
    (B) increasing dominance of the economy by the state
    (C) proliferation of public cooperations
    (D) phenomenal increase in direct foreign investment
    (8) Bicameral legislature exists: (A) where camera
    men are allowed to cover the proceedings of legisl
    ature (B) to prevent the concentration of power in
    one legisterature house (C) to provide jobs for m
    ore politicians (D) to ensure that just laws are p
    (9) A major issues that distinguishes pressure grou
    ps from political parties is
    (A) membership (B) the objective (C) the voting pat
    tern (D) the ideology.
    (10) Equality before the law is component of
    (A) separation of powers (B) checks and balanced (C
    ) the rule of law (D)constitutional law
    (11) A law passed by the legislature and assented
    to by the executive is (A) an act (b) a presidenti
    al proclamation (C). A decree (D) a legislative or
    (12) The principles of checks and balances empower
    s the judiciary to (A) invalidate the actions of o
    ther arms (B) administer the criminal justice sys
    tem (C) abrogate the law (D) apply the law
    (13) In a parliamentry, the term shadow cabinet is
    often used to refer to
    (A) back benchers in the h
    (B). Deputy prime minister and assistant mini
    (C) rebellious members of the ruling party
    D) portfolio designates. Of the party in opposition.
    (14) The fundamental assumption on which the idea o
    f the rule of law is based is
    (A). Supremacy at the constitution (B)rationality
    of human being (C) quality of human being (D) love
    for social justice.
    (15) Association whose main interest is to influen
    ce public policies without attempting to capture s
    tate power are (A) communal group (b) trade unioun
    (c) political paties (D) pressure group
    (16) Multilaterism in Nigeria foreign policy entai
    ls (A) africa being the centre piece of nigeria fo
    reign policy (B) Non-aligned posture in internatio
    nal affairs (C) quest for a permanent membership (
    D) membership of internation organisation.
    (17) The set of policies on the basis of which co
    untries interact with one another is called (A) di
    plomacy (B) foreign policy (C) National policy (D)
    international relations
    (18) After the defeat of germany in world war 1, h
    er former colonies were administered under the lea
    gue. Of nation as (A) occupy territory (B) trust t
    erritories. (C)crown colonies (D) protectorates
    (19) The Nigeria – cameroon crisis over Bakassi pe
    ninsula occured owning to the interpretation of th
    e treaty of 1913 and the
    (A) resolution of OAU (B) Maroua accord (C) decisi
    on of the ecowas (D) decision of the international
    court justice
    (20) The first Nigeria leader to become chairman o
    rganization of african unity was: (A) Tafawa balew
    a (B) murtala muhammed (c) yakuba gowon. (D) aguiy
    i ironsi
    1D 2B 3C 4D 5B 6A 7A 8D 9B 10C 11A 12A 13D 14C 15D
    16D 17B 18B 19B 20C
  50. The military coup of July 25, 1975 which topped general Yakubu Gowon from power
    took place when he was attending which important event?
    a. OAU Summit in Kampala
    b. UN General Assembly in New York
    c. Assembly of Heads of States of ECOWAS in Monrovia
    d. The Olympic Games
  51. Which of the following political parties did not participate in the 1979 General
    Elections in Nigeria?
    a. Unity Party of Nigeria
    b. National Party of Nigeria
    c. Social Democratic Party
  52. Alhaji Shehu Shagari was sworn in as President of the Federal republic of Nigeria in
    1979 by
    a. Justice Fatai Williams
    b. Justice Adetokunbo Ademola
    c. Justice Salihu Modibbo Alfa Belgore
    d. Justice Isa Mohammed
  53. The British took over Nigeria through
    a. Negotiation (b) Bargaining
    c. War (d) The Sea
  54. Which of the following courts served as the highest judicial organ for Nigeria up till
    a. Supreme court
    b. Federal Court of Appeal
    c. Appellate court
    d. The privy council
  55. What was the primary purpose of the Sir Henry Willinks Commission of Inquiry?
    a. To approve the independence of Nigeria
    b. To allay the fears of minorities in Nigeria
    c. To amalgamate Northern and Southern Nigeria.
    d. To make Lagos a British colony
  56. Into how many local government areas is Nigeria officially delineated?
    a. 654 (b) 650 (c) 820 (d) 774
  57. Laws made by State government are known as
    a. Edicts (b) Bye law (c) Acts
    (d) Decrease
  58. The centenary anniversary of the amalgamation of Northern and southern Nigeria
    was celebrated in
    a. 2060 (b) 2063 (c) 2014 (d) 2007
  59. Which of these men introduced indirect rule in Nigeria?
    a. Mungo Park
    b. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe
    c. Lord Lugard
    d. Sir James Robertson
  60. Politics is an act for
    a. Man to govern himself
    b. Man to create government
    c. States to control its destiny
    d. Man to determine others
  61. A major issue that distinguishes pressure groups from political parties is
    a. Membership (b) objective (c) voting patterns (d) ideology
  62. A nation consists of people with
    a. Common history
    b. Common ancestry
    c. A shared set of values
    d. A,B, and C above
  63. A totalitarian state is based on
    a. Multi-party system
    b. Total protection of civic rights
    c. The totality of the state processes
    d. Coercion as the instrument of government
  64. A political concept that defines the beliefs, attitudes and values of a society is called
    a. Political socialization
    b. Political culture c. Political transformation
    d. Referendum
  65. The agent of political socialization generally regarded as the most important is
    Family (b) Peer group (c) school d. Churches and Mosques
  66. A political ideology that defines a system of societal organization in which the state
    control the commanding heights of the economy is called (a)totalitarianism
    (b)communalism (c) socialism (d) communism
  67. In which of the following countries is governmental powers most fused?
    a. Nigeria
    b. United states of America
    c. France
    d. Canada
  68. The benefits of separation of powers include the following except
    (a) Checks and balances
    (b) Interference
    (c) Rule of law applies
    (d) Less corruption
  69. Which of the following best describes French colonial policy in Africa? (a) policy of
    association (b) policy of casus belli (c) policy of hostility (d) policy assimilation
  70. The electorate is generally understood to refer to: (a) elected members of the
    national assembly (b) elected members of the state houses of assembly (c)
    candidates who can contest elections (d) those citizens qualified to vote at
  71. In a parliamentary system of government, the function of the head of state and the
    head of government are vested in (a) the inner cabinet (b) an individual (c)
    two different individual s (d) the ministerial council
  72. In a modern democracy , the ultimate source of sovereignty is the (a) legislature
    and executive (b) judiciary (c) ruling political party (d) people
    1A 2C 3B 4D 5D 6B 7D 8A 9C 10C 11A 12B 13D 14D 15C 16B 17A 18C 19B 20A 21D 22D
    23C 24D
    The coat of arm of Nigeria has a black shield with two white stripes that come together, like the
    letter ‘Y’.
    This ‘Y’ SYMBOL represent the two main rivers flowing through Nigeria:
    which are the two popular rivers known as:
    River Niger and River Benue.
    The black shield represent Nigeria’s good earth.
    While the two horses on each sides of the coat of arm represent dignity.
    The eagle represent Strenght, while the green and white bands on the top of the shied represent
    the rich Agricultural land of the country.
    While the yellow flower at the base of the Coat of arm are Costus spectabilis, which is Nigeria’s
    national flower.
    The flag of Nigeria was designed in 1959 and first officially hosted on 1st October 1960.(which
    is Nigeria National Independent Day)
    The green bands represent the forests and abundant natural wealth of Nigeria while the White
    band stands for peace.
    However, what you should know is that, the designer of the flag was a student from IBADAN,
    Micheal Taiwo Akinkunmi.
    Nigeria is a country which has the highest population in Africa continent.
    Which is proved by the 21st to 25th March, 2006 population census.
    Nigeria’s population was estimated to be about 140,000,000 people.(One hundred and forty
    Nigeria, which is officially known as The Federal Republic of Nigeria, stands as a boarder,
    Benin Republic on the west,
    Cameroon on the east,
    Gulf of Guinea on the south,
    Niger to the north.
    Currently, Nigeria is made up of 36 STATES and the Federal Capital Territory (FCT).
    With 109 senatorial districts,
    360 federal constituencies,
    990 state constituencies,
    774 local governments,
    8810 wards.
    This are the names of Nigeria former colonial masters.
    They are,
    Sir Frederick Lord Lugard,
    who ruled from 1900 to 1919.
    Sir Hugh Clifford,
    Who ruled from 1919 to 1925.
    Sir Creamer Thompson,
    who ruled from 1925 to 1931.
    Sir Donald Cameroon,
    who ruled from 1931 to 1935.
    Sir Bernard Bourdilion.
    who ruled from 1935 to 1943.
    Sir Anthony Richard.
    Who ruled from 1943to 1948.
    Sir John McPherson.
    Who ruled from 1948 to 1958.
    Sir James Robertson.
    Who ruled from 1958 to 1960.
    The Nigeria first indigenous Governor General and also the first Ceremonial President is:
    Dr Nnamdi Azikwe.
    The first prime minister in Nigeria is:
    Alhaji Abubakar Tafawa Balewa.
    The first millitary head of state in Nigeria is:
    General Aguiyi Ironsi.
    The first executive President of Nigeria is:
    Alhaji Shehu Shagari.
    The first military president in Nigeria is:
    General Ibrahim Babangida.
    50 Question and Answers about Nigeria.
READ ALSO:   NN Past Questions And Answers

1. Mention the new service chiefs in Nigeria

Answer: General Abayomi Gabriel Olonishakin- Chief of Defence Staff;
Lt-General T.Y. Buratai- Chief of Army Staff;
Vice Admiral Ibok-Ete Ekwe Ibas- Chief of Naval Staff;
Air Marshal Sadique Abubakar – Chief of Air Staff

2. Who is the current INEC chairman?

Answer: Mahmud Yakubu

3. Who is the current NAFDAC Director General?

Answer: Paul Orhii

4. Who is the Immediate past Inspector General of police?

Answer: IGP Solomon Arase

5. Current chairman of the African Union

Answer: Robert Mugabe

6. Who is the secretary General of the united nations

Answer: Ban Ki-Moon

7. Who is the current minister of education?

Answer: Anthony Onwuka

8. Mention five rivers in Nigeria that share their names with a state.

Answer: Rivers- Benue, Niger, Osun, Kaduna, Ogun, Sokoto, Cross River, Imo

9. What was the first political party in Nigeria?

Answer: Nigerian National Democratic party (NNDP)

10. Who is the current president of Nigeria?

Answer: Muhammadu Buhari

11. Who is the current vice president of Nigeria?

Answer: Yemi Osibajo

12. What does the eagle in the Nigerian coat of arm represent?

Answer: Strength

13. Mention 5 past senate presidents of Nigeria.

Answer: Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe, Evan Enwerem, Chuba Okadigbo, Anyim Pius Anyim,
Adolphus Wabara, Ken Nnamani, David Mark

14. What do the two horses on the Nigerian coat of arm represent?

Answer: Dignity

14. What was the black shield in the Nigerian coat of arm stand for?

Answer: Nigerian’s fertile soil

16. What does the white colour in Nigerian flag stand for?

Answer: Peace

17. What does the green colour in Nigerian flag represent?

Answer: Forests and abundant natural wealth of Nigeria

18. Who is the current minister of finance?

Answer: Kemi Adeosun

19. Who is the current minister of defence?

Answer: Monsur Dan-Ali

20. Nigeria is divided into how many geopolitical zones?

Answer: Six (6) geopolitical zones

21. What was the first capital city in Nigeria?

Answer: Calabar

22. Who is the current minister of FCT?

Answer: Muhammadu Bello

23. Who is the current Nigerian Deputy Senate president?

Answer: Senator Ike Ekweremadu

24. When did Nigerian Golden eaglets win the world under-17 FIFA world cup

Answer: 1985, 1993, 2007, 2013, 2015

25. Who gave Nigeria her name:

Answer: Flora Shaw

26. Who designed the Nigerian flag?

Answer: Michael Taiwo Akinkunmi

27. Which country won the last world cup?

Answer: Germany

28. Who was the first man to buy a car in Nigeria?

Answer: Bob Jensen

29. Who was the first woman to drive a car in Nigeria?

Answer: Funmilayo Ransome Kuti

30. What is the first TV station in Nigeria?

Answer: Western Nigerian Government Broadcasting Corporation (WNTV) in 1959

31. Who is the current CBN Governor?

Answer: Godwin Emefiele

32. Where was crude oil first discovered in Nigeria?

Answer: Oloibiri Oilfield, located in Oloibiri in Ogbia LGA of Bayelsa State

33. Who was the first Nigerian to become a Noble Laureate?

Answer: Wole Soyinka

34. Who is the Nigerian current speaker of house of Assembly?

Answer: Yakubu Dogara

35. Who is the minister for petroleum resources in Nigeria?

Answer: President Muhammudu Buhari

36. Who is the current chief justice of Nigeria?

Answer: Mahmoud Mohammed.

37. When was the Nigerian Naira introduced?

Answer: 1st January 1973

38. When was the first military coup carried out in Nigeria?

Answer: 1966

39. How many local Government do we have in Nigeria?

Answer: 774

40. Who is the first Nigerian president?

Answer: Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe

41. Who was Nigerian first executive president?

Answer: Alhaji Shehu Aliyu Shagari

42. Who was the Nigerian first prime minister?

Answer: Abubakar Tafawa Balewa

43. What is the largest continent in the world?

Answer: ASIA with population of 3,641,000,000 while Australia & Oceania is the smallest

44. What are the five Oceans in the world?

Answer: Pacific Ocean, Atlantic Ocean, Indian Ocean, Southern Ocean, Arctic Ocean

45. What is the full meaning of UNICEF?

Answer: United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund

46. When were the currency notes introduced?

Answer: 100 naira:1999, 200 naira in 2000, 500 naira in 2001 and 1000 naira on October 12,

47. How many ministers do we have in Nigeria?

Answer: 38

48. Who is the current Senate President in Nigeria?

Answer: Senator Bukola Saraki

49. Which country’s flag is called the Union Jack?

Answer: Great Britain

50. With which countries does Nigeria share boundaries?

Answer: Nigeria is located in West Africa and shares land borders with the Republic of
Benin in the west, Chad and Cameroon in the east, and Niger in the north
100 Computer General Knowledge For Bank Examination: Computer QUIZ

  1. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT:
    A. hackers.
    B. spam.
    C. viruses.
    D. identity theft.
    Answer: B
  2. A process known as __ is used by large retailers to study trends.
    A. data mining
    B. data selection
    C. POS
    D. data conversion
    Answer: A
  3. ____________terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex
    inventory and sales computer systems.
    A. Data
    B. Point-of-sale (POS)
    C. Sales
    D. Query
    Answer: B
  4. A(n) __ system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an item’s
    tag and pulls up the current price (and any special offers) as you shop.
    A. PSS
    B. POS
    C. inventory
    D. data mining
    Answer: A
  5. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is an
    example of a law enforcement specialty called:
    A. robotics.
    B. simulation.
    C. computer forensics.
    D. animation.
    Answer: C
  6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?
    A. gathering data
    B. processing data into information
    C. analyzing the data or information
    D. storing the data or information
    Answer: C
  7. __ tags, when placed on an animal, can be used to record and track in a database
    all of the animal’s movements.
    A. POS
    B. RFID
    C. PPS
    D. GPS
    Answer: B
  8. Surgeons can perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through computers instead
    of manually. This technology is known as:
    A. robotics.
    B. computer forensics.
    C. simulation.
    D. forecasting.
    Answer: A
  9. Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to be:
    A. proprietary.
    B. open.
    C. experimental.
    D. in the public domain.
    Answer: A
  10. __ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to 100
    A. Nanoscience
    B. Microelectrodes
    C. Computer forensics
    D. Artificial intelligence
    Answer: A
  11. __ is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of
    intelligence that humans do.
    A. Nanoscience
    B. Nanotechnology
    C. Simulation
    D. Artificial intelligence (AI)
    Answer: D
  12. __ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion.
    A. A process
    B. Software
    C. Storage
    D. Information
    Answer: D
  13. The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called:
    A. programming.
    B. processing.
    C. storing.
    D. organizing.
    Answer: B
  14. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to __ data.
    A. present
    B. input
    C. output
    D. store
    Answer: B
  15. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately, the actual
    print of the picture is considered:
    A. data.
    B. output.
    C. input.
    D. the process.
    Answer: B
  16. Computers use the __ language to process data.
    A. processing
    B. kilobyte
    C. binary
    D. representational
    Answer: C
  17. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with:
    A. multimedia.
    B. words.
    C. characters.
    D. numbers.
    Answer: D
  18. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is
    made up of a unique combination of:
    A. eight bytes.
    B. eight kilobytes.
    C. eight characters.
    D. eight bits.
    Answer: D
  19. The term bit is short for:
    A. megabyte.
    B. binary language.
    C. binary digit.
    D. binary number.
    Answer: C
  20. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a:
    A. megabyte.
    B. byte.
    C. kilobyte.
    D. gigabyte.
    Answer: B
  21. A __ is approximately one billion bytes.
    A. kilobyte
    B. bit
    C. gigabyte
    D. megabyte
    Answer: C
  22. A __ is approximately a million bytes.
    A. gigabyte
    B. kilobyte
    C. megabyte
    D. terabyte
    Answer: C
  23. __ is any part of the computer that you can physically touch.
    A. Hardware
    B. A device
    C. A peripheral
    D. An application
    Answer: A
  24. The components that process data are located in the:
    A. input devices.
    B. output devices.
    C. system unit.
    D. storage component.
    Answer: C
  25. All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a:
    A. scanner.
    B. mouse.
    C. keyboard.
    D. printer.
    Answer: D
  26. Which of the following is an example of an input device?
    A. scanner
    B. speaker
    C. CD
    D. printer
    Answer: A
  27. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT:
    A. hard disk drives.
    B. printers.
    C. floppy disk drives.
    D. CD drives.
    Answer: B
  28. The __, also called the “brains†of the computer, is responsible for
    processing data.
    A. motherboard
    B. memory
    C. RAM
    D. central processing unit (CPU)
    Answer: D
  29. The CPU and memory are located on the:
    A. expansion board.
    B. motherboard.
    C. storage device.
    D. output device.
    Answer: B
  30. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are examples of:
    A. application software.
    B. system software.
    C. operating system software.
    D. platform software.
    Answer: A
  31. __ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks.
    A. An instruction
    B. Software
    C. Memory
    D. A processor
    Answer: B
  32. System software is the set of programs that enables your computers hardware devices and
    __ software to work together.
    A. management
    B. processing
    C. utility
    D. application
    Answer: D
  33. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple Macintosh are examples of two different:
    A. platforms.
    B. applications.
    C. programs.
    D. storage devices.
    Answer: A
  34. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different __ to process data and different
    operating systems.
    A. languages
    B. methods
    C. CPUs
    D. storage devices
    Answer: C
  35. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a:
    A. network.
    B. mainframe.
    C. supercomputer.
    D. client.
    Answer: A
  36. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing __ in many
    A. supercomputers
    B. clients
    C. laptops
    D. mainframes
    Answer: D
  37. __ are specially designed computers that perform complex calculations
    extremely rapidly.
    A. Servers
    B. Supercomputers
    C. Laptops
    D. Mainframes
    Answer: B
  38. DSL is an example of a(n) __ connection.
    A. network
    B. wireless
    C. slow
    D. broadband
    Answer: D
  39. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without
    this access is known as the:
    A. digital divide.
    B. Internet divide.
    C. Web divide.
    D. broadband divide.
    Answer: A
  40. __ is the science revolving around the use of nano structures to build devices on
    an extremely small scale.
    A. Nanotechnology
    B. Micro-technology
    C. Computer forensics
    D. Artificial intelligence
    Answer: A
  41. Which of the following is the correct order of the four major functions of a computer?
    A. Process à Output à Input à Storage
    B. Input à Outputà Process à Storage
    C. Process à Storage à Input à Output
    D. Input à Process à Output à Storage
    Answer: D
  42. __ bits equal one byte.
    A. Eight
    B. Two
    C. One thousand
    D. One million
    Answer: A
  43. The binary language consists of __ digit(s).
    A. 8
    B. 2
    C. 1,000
    D. 1
    Answer: B
  44. A byte can hold one __ of data.
    A. bit
    B. binary digit
    C. character
    D. kilobyte
    Answer: C
  45. __ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a
    means by which users can interact with the computer.
    A. The platform
    B. The operating system
    C. Application software
    D. The motherboard
    Answer: B
  46. The operating system is the most common type of __ software.
    A. communication
    B. application
    C. system
    D. word-processing software
    Answer: C
  47. __ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as
    your car or your electronic thermostat.
    A. Servers
    B. Embedded computers
    C. Robotic computers
    D. Mainframes
    Answer: B
  48. The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking an
    icon, are called:
    A. instructions.
    B. the operating system.
    C. application software.
    D. the system unit.
    Answer: A
  49. The two broad categories of software are:
    A. word processing and spreadsheet.
    B. transaction and application.
    C. Windows and Mac OS.
    D. system and application.
    Answer: D
  50. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the:
    A. system unit.
    B. CPU.
    C. mainframe.
    D. platform.
    Answer: A
    Fill in the Blanks:
  51. Between PCs and Macs, the __ is the platform of choice for graphic design
    and animation.Answer: Mac
  52. The __ is the program that manages the hardware of the computer system,
    including the CPU, memory, storage devices, and input/output devices.Answer: operating
  53. The type of operating system software you use depends on your computers
    __.Answer: platform
  54. ____________software helps you carry out tasks, such as typing a document or creating
    a spreadsheet.Answer: Application
  55. ____________are the fastest and most expensive computers.Answer: Supercomputers
  56. A __ is approximately 1,000 bytes.Answer: kilobyte
  57. Input devices are used to provide the steps and tasks the computer needs to process
    data, and these steps and tasks are called __.Answer: instructions
  58. A computer gathers data, processes it, outputs the data or information, and
    __ the data or information.Answer: stores
  59. The binary language consists of two digits: _ and _.Answer: 0
    and 1
  60. A string of __ 0s and 1s is called a byte.Answer: eight (8)
  61. The devices you use to enter data into a computer system are known as __
    devices.Answer: input
  62. The devices on a computer system that let you see the processed information are known
    as __ devices.Answer: output
  63. __ is the set of computer instructions or programs that enables the
    hardware to perform different tasks.Answer: Software
  64. When you connect to the __, your computer is communicating with a server
    at your Internet service provider (ISP).Answer: Internet
  65. __ are computers that excel at executing many different computer programs
    at the same time.Answer: Mainframes
  66. ____________is the application of computer systems and techniques to gather legal
    evidence.Answer: Computer forensics
  67. __ is the science that attempts to create machines that will emulate the
    human thought process.Answer: Artificial intelligence (AI)
  68. Macintosh computers use the Macintosh operating system (Mac OS), whereas PCs
    generally run __ as an operating system.Answer: Microsoft Windows
  69. A process known as __ tracks trends and allows retailers to respond to
    consumer buying patterns.Answer: data mining
  70. Hard disk drives and CD drives are examples of __ devices.Answer: storage
  71. You would use __ software to create spreadsheets, type documents, and edit
    photos.Answer: application
  72. __ are computers that support hundreds or thousands of users
    simultaneously.Answer: Mainframes
  73. __ is the term given to the act of stealing someone’s identity and ruining
    their credit rating.Answer: Identity theft
  74. Surgeons are using __ to guide robots to perform delicate surgery.Answer:
  75. Patient __ are life-sized mannequins that have a pulse and a heartbeat and
    respond to procedures just like humans.Answer: simulators
    True and False
  76. Currently, the performance of tasks by robots is based on pre programmed
    algorithms.Answer: True
  77. Data can be a number, a word, a picture, or a sound.Answer: True
  78. Strictly defined, a computer is a data processing device.Answer: True
  79. The discrepancy between the “haves†and “have-nots†with regard to computer
    technology is commonly referred to as the digital society.Answer: False (digital divide)
  80. One of the benefits of becoming computer fluent is being a savvy computer user and
    consumer and knowing how to avoid viruses, the programs that pose threats to computer
    Answer: True
  81. Trend-spotting programs, developed for business, have been used to predict criminal
    activity.Answer: True
  82. Employers do not have the right to monitor e-mail and network traffic on employee
    systems used at work.Answer: False
  83. Clicking on an icon with the mouse is a form of giving an instruction to the
    computer.Answer: True
  84. Output devices store instructions or data that the CPU processes.Answer: False
  85. The CPU and memory are located on a special circuit board in the system unit called
    the motherboard.Answer: True
  86. Nanostructures represent the smallest human-made structures that can be
    built.Answer: True
  87. The main difference between a supercomputer and a mainframe is that supercomputers
    are designed to execute a few programs as quickly as possible,whereas mainframes are
    designed to handle many programs running at the same time (but at a slower pace).
    Answer: True
  88. Being computer fluent means that you should be able to build a computer
    yourself.Answer: False
  89. Embedded computers are self-contained computer devices that have their own
    programming and do not receive input.Answer: True
  90. A Web browser is a special device that is installed in your computer that allows it to
    communicate with other devices on a network.Answer: False (network adapter)
  91. With a wireless network, it is easier to relocate devices.Answer: True
  92. The most common type of memory that the computer uses to process data is
    ROM.Answer: False (RAM)
  93. Match the following terms with their approximate size:
    I. kilobyte A. one million bytes
    II. Byte B. eight bits
    III. gigabyte C. one thousand bytes
    IV. Megabyte D. one billion bytes
    V. terabyte E. one trillion bytes
    Answer: C, B, D, A, E
  94. Match the following terms with their meanings:I. printer A. storage device
    II. scanner B. output device
    III. RAM C. input device
    IV. CPU D. a type of memory
    V. CD drive E. processor
    Answer: B, C, D, E, A
  95. Match the following terms with their meanings:I. mainframe A. the most expensive
    computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly
    II. supercomputer B. a computer that provides resources to other computers connected to a
    III. embedded computer C. a large, expensive computer that supports hundreds or thousands of
    users simultaneously
    IV. PDA D. a self-contained computer device that usually performs preprogrammed functions
    such as temperature control
    V. server E. a small mobile computing device
    Answer: C, A, D, E, B
  96. Match the following terms with their meanings:I. software A. transforming data into
    II. hardware B. data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion
    III. operating system C. any part of the computer that you can physically touch
    IV. processing D. a set of computer programs that enables hardware to perform different tasks
    V. information E. the most common type of system software, it controls the way in which the
    computer system functions
    Answer: D, C, E, A, B
  97. Match the following terms with their meanings:I. system software A. the set of programs
    that enables computer hardware devices and application software to work together
    II. application software B. the kind of operating system software you will use depends on this
    III. platform C. operating system software generally used on PCs
    IV. Microsoft Windows D. a set of programs used to accomplish a specific task
    V. Mac OS E. operating system software used on the Apple Macintosh
    Answer: A, D, B, C, E
  98. Match the following terms with their meanings:I. data A. the main circuit board in the
    system unit
    II. memory B. the representation of a fact or idea (unprocessed information)
    III. output C. processed data or information
    IV. storage D. holds instructions or data that the CPU processes
    V. motherboard E. data or information that can be accessed again
    Answer: B, D, C, E, A
  99. Match the following terms with their meanings:I. bit A. the science revolving around the
    use of nanostructures to build devices on an extremely small scale
    II. binary language B. the case that contains the system components
    III. instructions C. consists of 0s and 1s
    IV. system unit D. short for binary digit
    V. nanotechnology E. steps and tasks necessary to process data into usable information
    Answer: D, C, E, B, A
  100. Match the following fields to the related computer technology:I. medicine A. Internet
    research and virtual tours
    II. business B. data mining
    III. law enforcement C. robotics and simulation
    IV. education D. computer forensics
    V. archeology E. digital recreations of ruins
    Answer: C, B, D, A, E
    Question 1
    For the little boy, a lolly was tangible, whereas a promise was not.
    The word tangible in this sentence means:
    A: basic B: untouchable C: actual D: edible E: none of these
    Question 2
    Please read the following sentence.
    Once Jane lifted her pen and made a start, writing the essay became easy.
    If we change the start of the sentence to:
    Writing the essay became easy……..
    What will the ending be?
    A: after starting.
    B: after lifting her pen.
    C: once Jane lifted her pen and made a start.
    D: once she lifted her pen and made a start.
    E: None of these.
    Question 3
    The boy’s incorrigible behaviour puzzled his sister.
    The word incorrigible in this sentence means:
    A: appalling B: reformed C: incurable D: frustrated E: none of these
    Question 4
    Genealogy is fun. Just as a piece of furniture or a picture takes on much more interest
    if you know its history, so does an individual become more real once the ancestral
    elements that shaped him are known. An in-depth family history is a tapestry of all
    those to whom we owe our existence.
    Which statement best conveys the theme of this paragraph?
    A: Finding out about our ancestors is more interesting than researching the history of objects.
    B: Genealogy is a study of people and their belongings in the past.
    C: Genealogy is a study of family history.
    D: Genealogical research can bring meaning and life to a family’s history.
    E: Most genealogies are a waste of effort.
    Question 5
    Choose the option which will best replace the underlined words in the sentence to make it correct.
    She done it to quick, so it came out looking rough.
    A: done it too quickly B: did it too quick C: did it too quickly D: did it to quickly E: none of these
    Read the following paragraph to answer the next two questions (Questions 6&7).
    Tailgating another vehicle is unsafe and illegal. Many rear-end collisions are caused by drivers
    following too close to the vehicle in front of them. The rules state that a driver must keep sufficient
    distance from the vehicle in front in order to stop safely and avoid a collision. Drivers should allow a
    minimum two seconds’ gap between their vehicle and the one ahead. At sixty kilometres an hour, this
    equates to thirty-three metres; at a hundred it equates to fifty-five metres. More distance is needed to
    safely stop in rain or poor visibility.
    Question 6
    Tailgating another vehicle is unsafe because:
    A: all rear end collisions are caused by drivers following too close to the vehicle in front.
    B: it may not allow sufficient time and space to stop and avoid a collision.
    C: it is against the road rules.
    D: it is a reckless practice.
    E: None of these.
    Page 2
    Question 7
    ‘More distance is needed to safely stop in rain or poor visibility.’ We can infer from this that:
    A: people drive faster in rain and poor visibility.
    B: the writer is merely calculating on the safe side.
    C: braking is more hazardous in rain and poor visibility.
    D: the road rules state that this must be so.
    E: All of these.
    Read the following paragraphs to answer the next two questions (Questions 8&9).
    There is a place forty kilometres north-east of Portland, Victoria, which makes for an
    unusual visit. It is Lake Condah. Here are to be found remains of aboriginal settlements:
    the circular stone bases of several hundred huts, rock-lined water channels, and stone
    tools chipped from rock not normally found in the area. One of the attractions of Lake
    Condah long ago was its fish and the most startling evidence of aboriginal technology and
    engineering to be found there are the systems built to trap fish.
    Water courses had been constructed by redirecting streams, building stone sides and
    even scraping out new channels. At strategic spots, they piled rocks across the water
    courses to create weirs and build funnels to channel eels and fish into conical baskets.
    This is an eel-fishing technique which has hardly changed to the present day. Beside
    some of the larger traps, there are the outlines of rectangular, stone-lined ponds, probably
    to hold fish and keep them fresh.
    On the bluffs overlooking the lake, stone circles are all that remain of ancient dwellings.
    Not all of the stones were quarried locally. The huts vary in size, but all have gaps for
    doorways located on the lee side, away from the prevailing wind. One theory is that the
    stone walls were only waist to shoulder high, with the top roofed by branches and
    possibly packed with mud.
    The site presents a picture of a semi-settled people quite different from the stereotype of
    nomadic hunter-gatherers of the desert.
    Question 8
    The word ‘stereotype’, as used in the above passage, means:
    A: distant culture.
    B: opposite picture.
    C: electronic print version.
    D: standard view.
    E: None of these.
    Question 9
    Lake Condah is seen as unusual, mainly because:
    A: it is so close to a main town.
    B: there are remains of buildings still to be seen.
    C: it reveals a society that was at least partly settled and had building and engineering skills.
    D: there is evidence that some of the building stone was imported.
    E: it shows the lake dwellers were totally reliant on fish for a food source.
    Question 10
    The sentence below does not have any punctuation. Choose the option with the correct
    one of these days said mary youll get into trouble
    A: One of these days, said Mary, you’ll get into trouble.
    B: “One of these days,” said Mary “you’ll get into trouble”
    C: “One of these days,” said Mary. “You’ll get into trouble.”
    D: “One of these days,” said Mary, “you’ll get into trouble.”
    E: “One of these days,” said Mary, “youll get into trouble.”
    Page 3
    Question 11
    What does this sentence suggest?
    A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush.
    A: Your own possessions are always worth more to you.
    B: Birds are hard to catch, so hang on to one if you catch it.
    C: To have something is better than having nothing at all.
    D: A trained bird is twice the value of an untrained one.
    E: There is no point in being envious.
    Read the following paragraphs to answer the next four questions (Questions 12 – 15).
    Between us there was, as I have already said somewhere, the bond of the sea. Besides
    holding our hearts together through long periods of separation, it had the effect of making
    us tolerant of each other’s yarns-and even convictions. The Lawyer-the best of old
    fellows-had, because of his many years and many virtues, the only cushion on deck, and
    was lying on the only rug. The Accountant had brought out already a box of dominoes,
    and was toying architecturally with the bones. Marlow sat cross-legged right aft, leaning
    against the mizzen-mast. He had sunken cheeks, a yellow complexion, a straight back,
    an ascetic aspect, and, with his arms dropped, the palms of hands outwards, resembled
    an idol. The Director, satisfied the anchor had good hold, made his way aft and sat down
    amongst us. We exchanged a few words lazily.
    Afterwards there was silence on board the yacht. For some reason or other we did not
    begin that game of dominoes. We felt meditative, and fit for nothing but placid staring.
    The day was ending in a serenity of still and exquisite brilliance. The water shone
    pacifically; the sky, without a speck, was a benign immensity of unstained light; the very
    mist on the Essex marshes was like a gauzy and radiant fabric, hung from the wooded
    rises inland, and draping the low shores in diaphanous folds. Only the gloom to the west,
    brooding over the upper reaches, became more sombre every minute, as if angered by
    the approach of the sun.
    And at last, in its curved and imperceptible fall, the sun sank low, and from glowing white
    changed to a dull red without rays and without heat, as if about to go out suddenly,
    stricken to death by the touch of that gloom brooding over a crowd of men.
    From ‘The Heart of Darkness’, by Joseph Conrad.
    Question 12
    The narrator of this passage is telling his story from:
    A: a wharf.
    B: the deck of a yacht.
    C: a high vantage point.
    D: the edge of the Essex marshes.
    E: None of the above.
    Question 13
    The mood of the men in this passage is best described as:
    A: surly B: resigned C: contemplative D: restless E: ecstatic
    Question 14
    From the passage, it is clear that the men:
    A: do not get along.
    B: show a quiet understanding.
    C: cannot be bothered with one another.
    D: have just had a quarrel.
    E: are worn out.
    Question 15
    The word ‘diaphanous’, used to describe the mist, means:
    A: almost transparent B: fragile C: suffocating D: silent E: none of the above
    Page 4
    Page 5
    Read the following paragraphs to answer the next four questions (Questions 16 – 19).
    Among predatory dinosaurs, few flesh-eaters were bigger, faster and nastier than the
    “tyrant lizard” of popular imagination, the Tyrannosaurus Rex. At least, that is what we
    have been led to believe.
    Now research suggests that, far from being the Ferrari of dinosaurs, Tyrannosaurus Rex,
    whose ferocious reputation has fascinated generations of schoolchildren, was in fact a
    cumbersome creature with a usual running speed of twenty-five kilometres an hour. This
    is a mere snail’s pace compared with modern animals such as the cheetah.
    Unlike some of the predators of today’s African savannah, which can change direction
    almost immediately, the dinosaur would have had to turn slowly or risk tumbling over. And
    while a human can spin forty-five degrees in a twentieth of a second, a Tyrannosaurus
    would have taken as much as two seconds, as it would have been hampered by its long
    tail. Thankfully, however, all its prey, such as triceratops, would have been afflicted with
    the same lack of speed and agility.
    The findings were reached after researchers used computer modelling and biomechanical
    calculations to work out the dinosaur’s speed, agility and weight. They based their
    calculations on measurements taken from a fossil dinosaur representative of an average
    Tyrannosaurus and concluded the creatures probably weighed between six and eight
    Calculations of the leg muscles suggest that the animal would have had a top speed of
    forty kilometres an hour, which is nothing compared to a cheetah’s one hundred
    kilometres an hour. It is sobering to reflect, though, that an Olympic sprinter runs at about
    thirty-five kilometres an hour, not sufficient to outrun a Tyrannosaurus, should Man have
    been around at that time!
    Question 16
    Being known as the ‘Ferrari of dinosaurs’ means Tyrannosaurus Rex:
    A: wore shoes.
    B: was a quick and agile creature.
    C: was a hunting machine.
    D: was the most ferocious of dinosaurs.
    E: None of these.
    Question 17
    In turning, a Tyrannosaurus would have been hampered by:
    A: its weight.
    B: its bulky leg muscles.
    C: its overall size.
    D: its tail length.
    E: All of the above.
    Question 18
    In calculating the size, speed and agility of Tyrannosaurus Rex, scientists used:
    A: examination of fossils.
    B: biomechanical calculations and computer models.
    C: comparisons with modern animals.
    D: A and B together.
    E: B and C together.
    Question 19
    The overall theme of the passage is:
    A: Because it was cumbersome, Tyrannosaurus Rex was lucky to survive.
    B: Tyrannosaurus Rex’s speed and agility were still superior to those of other dinosaurs.
    C: Tyrannosaurus Rex’s fierce reputation is now laid to rest.
    D: Compared to modern predatory animals, Tyrannosaurus Rex was slow and cumbersome.
    E: None of these.
    Page 6
    Read the following paragraph to answer the next four questions (Questions 20 – 23).
    “Anne,” cried Mary, still at her window, “there is Mrs Clay, I am sure, standing under the
    colonnade, and a gentleman with her. I saw them turn the corner from Bath Street just
    now. They seemed deep in talk. Who is it? Come, and tell me. Good heavens! I recollect.
    It is Mr Elliot himself.”
    “No,” cried Anne, quickly, “it cannot be Mr Elliot, I assure you. He was to leave Bath at
    nine this morning, and does not come back till to-morrow.”
    As she spoke, she felt that Captain Wentworth was looking at her, the consciousness of
    which vexed and embarrassed her, and made her regret that she had said so much,
    simple as it was.
    Mary, resenting that she should be supposed not to know her own cousin, began talking
    very warmly about the family features, and protesting still more positively that it was Mr
    Elliot, calling again upon Anne to come and look for herself, but Anne did not mean to stir,
    and tried to be cool and unconcerned. Her distress returned, however, on perceiving
    smiles and intelligent glances pass between two or three of the lady visitors, as if they
    believed themselves quite in the secret. It was evident that the report concerning her had
    spread, and a short pause succeeded, which seemed to ensure that it would now spread
    “Do come, Anne” cried Mary, “come and look yourself. You will be too late if you do not
    make haste. They are parting; they are shaking hands. He is turning away. Not know Mr
    Elliot, indeed! You seem to have forgotten all about Lyme.”
    To pacify Mary, and perhaps screen her own embarrassment, Anne did move quietly to
    the window. She was just in time to ascertain that it really was Mr Elliot, which she had
    never believed, before he disappeared on one side, as Mrs Clay walked quickly off on the
    other; and checking the surprise which she could not but feel at such an appearance of
    friendly conference between two persons of totally opposite interest, she calmly said,
    “Yes, it is Mr Elliot, certainly. He has changed his hour of going, I suppose, that is all, or I
    may be mistaken, I might not attend;” and walked back to her chair, recomposed, and
    with the comfortable hope of having acquitted herself well.
    From ‘Persuasion’, by Jane Austen.
    Question 20
    Anne does not believe it is Mr Elliot whom Mary sees from the window because:
    A: Mary does not know what Mr Elliot looks like.
    B: Mr Elliot was to have left Bath earlier that day.
    C: it was highly unlikely that Mr Elliot would be a friend of Mrs Clay.
    D: A and B together.
    E: B and C together.
    Question 21
    Anne obviously knows Mr Elliot quite well for all the following reasons EXCEPT:
    A: she has knowledge of his travel plans.
    B: she shows discomfort at Mary spotting him.
    C: she is sensitive to what the other ladies might know.
    D: she had been speaking about Mr Elliot to others in the room.
    E: Mary refers to Anne meeting Mr Elliot in Lyme.
    Question 22
    Anne finally goes to the window because:
    A: she knows in her heart that it really is Mr Elliot.
    B: she wishes to prove Mary wrong.
    C: she wishes to calm Mary and cover up her own lack of composure.
    D: Mary frets that Mr Elliot will disappear from view.
    E: Mary is creating a fuss in front of the others in the room.
    Question 23
    From what occurs it can be inferred that Anne:
    A: couldn’t care less about Mr Elliot.
    B: had not known Mr Elliot long enough to recognise him.
    C: is attracted to Mr Elliot.
    D: is uncomfortable at Mr Elliot’s behaviour.
    E: C and D together.
    Read the following paragraph to answer the next two questions (Questions 24 & 25).
    A hare was very popular with the other beasts who all claimed to be her friend, but one
    day she heard the hounds approaching and hoped to escape them with the help of her
    many friends. “What are friends for,” she asked herself, “if not to help out in time of
    need?” Furthermore, most of her friends were big and brave, so at least one should be
    able to help. First she went to the horse, and asked him to carry her away from the
    hounds on his back. But he declined, stating that he had important work to do for his
    master. ” I feel sure,” he said, “that all your other friends will come to your assistance.”
    She then applied to the bull, and hoped that he would repel the hounds with his horns.
    The bull replied: “I am very sorry, but I have an appointment with a lady. However, I feel
    sure that our friend the goat will do what you want.” The goat, however, feared that his
    back might be harmed if he took her upon it. The ram, he felt sure, was the proper friend
    to apply to. So she went to the ram and told him the case. The ram replied: “Another time,
    my dear friend. I do not like to interfere on the present occasion, as hounds have been
    known to eat sheep as well as hares.” The hare then applied, as a last hope, to the calf,
    who regretted that he was unable to help her. He did not like to take the responsibility
    upon himself, as so many older persons had declined the task. By this time the hounds
    were quite near, so the hare had to take to her heels. Luckily, she escaped.
    Question 24
    The hare was confident she would find a friend to help for all the following reasons except:
    A: she knew she was popular.
    B: she assumed friends were there to help.
    C: most of her friends were big and strong.
    D: her friends had promised help whenever she needed it.
    E: .she had a wide range of friends.
    Question 25
    A suitable moral for this story would be:
    A: a friend in need is a friend indeed.
    B: never rely on your friends in a time of crisis.
    C: popularity does not mean friendship.
    D: friendship does not exist among animals.
    E: in a time of crisis you discover who your true friends are.
    Question 26
    The sentence below does not have any punctuation. Choose the option with the correct punctuation.
    dont you understand what im saying shouted his father get down at once
    A: Don’t you understand what Im saying, shouted his father. Get down at once.
    B: “Don’t you understand what I’m saying”, shouted his father, “Get down at once.”
    C: “Don’t you understand what Im saying”, shouted his father. “Get down at once”
    D: “Dont you understand what I’m saying.” shouted his father. “Get down at once”
    E: “Don’t you understand what I’m saying?” shouted his father. “Get down at once.”
    Page 7
    Question 27
    Choose the option which will best replace the underlined word in the sentence to make it correct.
    The hotel accomodation was luxurious.
    A: acommodation
    B: accommodation
    C: accomadation
    D: accommerdation
    E: Leave it as it is.
    Read the following paragraphs to answer the next five questions (Questions 28 – 32).
    When I returned to the common the sun was setting. The crowd about the pit had increased, and
    stood out black against the lemon yellow of the sky-a couple of hundred people, perhaps. There
    were raised voices, and some sort of struggle appeared to be going on about the pit. Strange
    imaginings passed through my mind. As I drew nearer I heard Stent’s voice:
    “Keep back! Keep back!” A boy came running towards me. “It’s movin’,” he said to me as he
    passed; “it’s screwin’ and screwin’ out. I don’t like it. I’m goin’ home, I am.” I went on to the crowd.
    There were really, I should think, two or three hundred people elbowing and jostling one another,
    the one or two ladies there being by no means the least active. “He’s fallen in the pit!” cried some
    one. “Keep back!” said several. The crowd swayed a little, and I elbowed my way through. Everyone
    seemed greatly excited. I heard a peculiar humming sound from the pit. “I say!” said Ogilvy. “Help
    keep these idiots back. We don’t know what’s in the confounded thing, you know!”
    I saw a young man, a shop assistant in Woking I believe he was, standing on the cylinder and trying
    to scramble out of the hole again. The crowd had pushed him in.
    The end of the cylinder was being screwed out from within. Nearly two feet of shining screw
    projected. Somebody blundered against me, and I narrowly missed being pitched onto the top of the
    screw. I turned, and as I did so the screw must have come out, for the lid of the cylinder fell upon
    the gravel with a ringing concussion. I stuck my elbow into the person behind me, and turned my
    head towards the Thing again. For a moment that circular cavity seemed perfectly black. I had the
    sunset in my eyes.
    I think everyone expected to see a man emerge-possibly something a little unlike us terrestrial men,
    but in all essentials a man. I know I did. But, looking, I presently saw something stirring within the
    shadow: greyish billowy movements, one above another, and then two luminous disks-like eyes.
    Then something resembling a little grey snake, about the thickness of a walking stick, coiled up out
    of the writhing middle, and wriggled in the air towards me-and then another.
    A sudden chill came over me. There was a loud shriek from a woman behind. I half turned, keeping
    my eyes fixed upon the cylinder still, from which other tentacles were now projecting, and began
    pushing my way back from the edge of the pit. I saw astonishment giving place to horror on the
    faces of the people about me. I heard inarticulate exclamations on all sides. There was a general
    movement backwards. I saw the shopman struggling still on the edge of the pit. I found myself
    alone, and saw the people on the other side of the pit running off, Stent among them. I looked again
    at the cylinder and ungovernable terror gripped me. I stood petrified and staring.
    A big greyish rounded bulk, the size, perhaps, of a bear, was rising slowly and painfully out of the
    cylinder. As it bulged up and caught the light, it glistened like wet leather.
    Two large dark-coloured eyes were regarding me steadfastly. The mass that framed them, the head
    of the thing, was rounded, and had, one might say, a face. There was a mouth under the eyes, the
    lipless brim of which quivered and panted, and dropped saliva. The whole creature heaved and
    pulsated convulsively. A lank tentacular appendage gripped the edge of the cylinder, another
    swayed in the air.
    Page 8
    Those who have never seen a living Martian can scarcely imagine the strange horror of its
    appearance. The peculiar V-shaped mouth with its pointed upper lip, the absence of brow ridges,
    the absence of a chin beneath the wedgelike lower lip, the incessant quivering of this mouth, the
    Gorgon groups of tentacles, the tumultuous breathing of the lungs in a strange atmosphere, the
    evident heaviness and painfulness of movement due to the greater gravitational energy of the earthabove all, the extraordinary intensity of the immense eyes-were at once vital, intense, inhuman,
    crippled and monstrous. There was something fungoid in the oily brown skin, something in the
    clumsy deliberation of the tedious movements unspeakably nasty. Even at this first encounter, this
    first glimpse, I was overcome with disgust and dread.
    From ‘The War of the Worlds’, by H G Wells
    Question 28
    This is part of a science fiction story. The most important clue to this would be:
    A: the cylinder in a hole on the common.
    B: something unscrewing the cylinder from within.
    C: the sense of terror and apprehension in the crowd.
    D: the emergence of a Martian.
    E: the author’s feelings of disgust and dread.
    Question 29
    The people in the crowd were first ‘elbowing and jostling’ one another because:
    A: they were retreating in fear from the pit.
    B: some were trying to push others into the pit.
    C: they were excited and curious to see what was in the pit.
    D: a few had lost their tempers.
    E: there were no police present to control them.
    Question 30
    The author hints that the women in the crowd were:
    A: just as aggressive as the men.
    B: more aggressive than the men.
    C: reluctant to push forward.
    D: merely passive onlookers.
    E: None of these.
    Question 31
    The mood of the crowd altered suddenly when:
    A: the cylinder opened.
    B: a bear emerged from the cylinder.
    C: a pair of eyes was detected peering at them from the cylinder.
    D: tentacles appeared out of the top of the cylinder.
    E: the creature opened its mouth.
    Question 32
    Of the Martian’s features, the one most causing the writer’s disgust and dread was:
    A: the slobbering mouth.
    B: the huge, intensely staring eyes.
    C: the oily, fungoid skin.
    D: the Gorgon-like tentacles.
    E: the heaving, pulsating body.
    Question 33
    Please read the following sentences.
    We all love to win. However, we also have to know how to accept defeat.
    If we change the above into a single sentence and begin:
    We have to know how to accept defeat……..
    What will the best ending be?
    A: however, we all love to win.
    B: but winning is better.
    C: so we can also love to win.
    D: even though we all love to win.
    E: None of these.
    Page 9
    Question 34
    He was a morose man, so people tended to avoid him.
    The word morose in this sentence means:
    A: large B: cheerful C: idiotic D: sullen E: none of these
    Read the following paragraphs to answer the next two questions (Questions 35 & 36).
    The debate on whether Australia will have a nation-wide carbon trading scheme ended last week
    with the government committed to a national emissions scheme from 2012. However, the decisionmaking as to how we power the economy in a carbon constrained world is only just beginning.
    Fossil fuels like coal and oil have underpinned our economic growth and standard of living for
    decades. The current resources boom is there because other countries want our fossil fuels, and for
    all these reasons it is profitable to keep mining them. Ironically, the income may help develop the
    technologies to replace them, but it is a matter of which and when.
    Almost certainly, in the race to reduce emissions, new technologies such as solar, wind and
    geothermal (heat from rocks) power will compete against gas, clean coal and perhaps nuclear
    energy to win the hearts and minds of the business world. In the end, business will favour whatever
    is a cheap, abundant and reliable solution. You can imagine the lobbying that will ensue from the
    different interest groups, to attract business capital and government support so that their technology
    wins out. There may be many collapsed ventures and lost fortunes along the way.
    Question 35
    Fossil fuels will be in demand for some time yet because:
    A: we have no other options.
    B: they are plentiful and cheap in Australia.
    C: our wealth and lifestyle are at present dependent on them.
    D: A and B together.
    E: B and C together.
    Question 36
    In the writer’s view ‘there may be many collapsed ventures’ along the way because:
    A: cheaper fossil fuels will continue to be used for a long time.
    B: business will favour existing sources, rather than undergoing expensive change.
    C: carbon emission rules will cripple new energy sources.
    D: not all the options will be adopted, so the cheaper and more efficient will survive.
    E: None of these.
    Read the following paragraphs to answer the next five questions (Questions 37 – 41).
    One of the modern world’s intriguing sources of mystery has been aeroplanes vanishing in mid-flight.
    One of the more famous of these was the disappearance in 1937 of a pioneer woman aviator, Amelia
    Earhart. On the second last stage of an attempted round the world flight, she had radioed her position
    as she and her navigator searched desperately for their destination, a tiny island in the Pacific.
    The plane never arrived at Howland Island. Did it crash and sink after running out of fuel? It had been
    a long haul from New Guinea, a twenty hour flight covering some four thousand kilometres. Did Earhart
    have enough fuel to set down on some other island on her radioed course? Or did she end up
    somewhere else altogether? One fanciful theory had her being captured by the Japanese in the
    Marshall Islands and later executed as an American spy; another had her living out her days under an
    assumed name as a housewife in New Jersey.
    Seventy years after Earhart’s disappearance, ‘myth busters’ continue to search for her. She was the
    best-known American woman pilot in the world. People were tracking her flight with great interest
    when, suddenly, she vanished into thin air. Aircraft had developed rapidly in sophistication after
    World War One, with the 1920s and 1930s marked by an aeronautical record-setting frenzy.
    Conquest of the air had become a global obsession. While Earhart was making headlines with her
    solo flights, other aviators like high-altitude pioneer Wiley Post and industrialist Howard Hughes
    were grabbing some glory of their own. But only Earhart, the reserved tomboy from Kansas who
    disappeared three weeks shy of her 40th birthday, still grips the public imagination. Her
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    disappearance has been the subject of at least fifty books, countless magazine and newspaper
    articles, and TV documentaries. It is seen by journalists as the last great American mystery.
    There are currently two main theories about Amelia Earhart’s fate.
    There were reports of distress calls from the Phoenix Islands made on Earhart’s radio frequency for
    days after she vanished. Some say the plane could have broadcast only if it were on land, not in the
    water. The Coast Guard and later the Navy, believing the distress calls were real, adjusted their
    searches, and newspapers at the time reported Earhart and her navigator were marooned on an
    island. No-one was able to trace the calls at the time, so whether Earhart was on land in the
    Phoenix Islands or there was a hoaxer in the Phoenix Islands using her radio remains a mystery.
    Others dismiss the radio calls as bogus and insist Earhart and her navigator ditched in the water. An
    Earhart researcher, Elgen Long, claims that Earhart’s airplane ran out of gas within fifty-two miles of
    the island and is sitting somewhere in a 6,000-square-mile area, at a depth of 17,000 feet. At that
    depth, the fuselage would still be in shiny, pristine condition if ever anyone were able to locate it. It
    would not even be covered in a layer of silt. Those who subscribe to this explanation claim that fuel
    calculations, radio calls and other considerations all show that the plane plunged into the sea
    somewhere off Howland Island.
    Whatever the explanation, the prospect of finding the remains is unsettling to many. To recover
    skeletal remains or personal effects would be a grisly experience and an intrusion. They want to
    know where Amelia Earhart is, but that’s as far as they would like to go. As one investigator has put
    it, “I’m convinced that the mystery is part of what keeps us interested. In part, we remember her
    because she’s our favourite missing person.”
    Question 37
    Amelia Earhart’s nationality was:
    A: English B: Australian C: Canadian D: American E: South African
    Question 38
    All the following are theories about Amelia’s fate EXCEPT:
    A: she crashed on a remote island somewhere near her destination.
    B: her plane ran out of fuel and crashed into the sea.
    C: she was captured by the Japanese and executed as a spy.
    D: she escaped incognito and lived under an assumed name.
    E: she crashed somewhere on Howland Island.
    Question 39
    The most convincing evidence that Amelia crashed somewhere on land was:
    A: the finding of aircraft remains.
    B: sightings by islanders.
    C: radio contact with the coastguard from the Phoenix Islands.
    D: distress signals from the Phoenix Islands on her particular radio frequency.
    E: All of these.
    Question 40
    If the aircraft were ever recovered from its probable sea grave:
    A: it would be hardly recognisable.
    B: it would be in pristine condition and considered highly valuable.
    C: it may reveal some grisly evidence.
    D: A and C together.
    E: B and C together.
    Question 41
    The fate of Amelia Earhart still fascinates investigators for all the following reasons EXCEPT:
    A: she was a famous female aviator and adventurer.
    B: there are such conflicting theories about her disappearance.
    C: she was so close to the end of her journey.
    D: she may have staged her own disappearance.
    E: she presents one of the twentieth century’s great unsolved mysteries.
    Question 42
    You cannot be a hero without being a coward
    What does this sentence suggest?
    A: Heroes are transformed cowards.
    B: To be truly heroic, you first have to know the meaning of fear.
    C: Heroes are cowards in disguise.
    D: You can never be one or the other; it is always a combination of both.
    E: None of these.
    Question 43
    The sentence below does not have any punctuation. Choose the option with the correct punctuation.
    whos going to fly qantas to sydney and use its special return offer
    A: who’s going to fly qantas to Sydney and use it’s special return offer?
    B: Who’s going to fly Qantas to Sydney and use its special return offer?
    C: Who’s going to fly Qantas to Sydney and use it’s special return offer?
    D: Whos going to fly Qantas to Sydney and use its special return offer.
    E: who’s going to fly Qantas to Sydney and use it’s special return offer?
    Question 44
    Choose the option which best corrects the errors in this sentence.
    Passed expereince tells me sitting in a draft you’ll catch a cold. A: Passed expereince tells me if I sat in a draught you’ll catch a cold.
    B: Passed experience tells me sitting in a draught I’ll catch a cold.
    C: Past expereince tells me if I sit in a draft I’ll catch a cold.
    D: Passed experience tells me if I sit in a draught you’ll catch a cold.
    E: Past experience tells me if I sit in a draught I’ll catch a cold.
    Question 45
    Far from being upright and moral, his behaviour showed him to be fallible.
    The word fallible in this sentence means:
    A: capable of falling over B: weak-kneed C: capable of error
    D: immoral E: None of these
    Question 46
    The sentence below does not have any punctuation. Choose the option with the correct
    we arent welcome here said Jenny so we had better go dont you think
    A: “We aren’t welcome here, said Jenny. We had better go don’t you think.”
    B: “We aren’t welcome here,” said Jenny, “we had better go, don’t you think?”
    C: “We aren’t welcome here,” said Jenny. “We had better go, don’t you think?”
    D: “We arent welcome here,” said Jenny, “we had better go, don’t you think.”
    E: “We are’nt welcome here,” said Jenny, “we had better go, don’t you think?”
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    Read the following paragraphs to answer the next two questions (Questions 47 & 48).
    Until widespread clearing of land began after 1861, the Tweed Valley, from the beach
    dunes to the mountains, was covered by dense wetland forests and rainforest. The
    rainforest had plenty of red cedar, which grew along the river banks and over the
    floodplains and foothills. Some of these trees were huge, up to sixty metres tall and as
    much as two thousand years old. Cedar was highly valued for its light weight, rich pink to
    red colours and interesting grain patterns. The tall trees provided magnificent lengths for
    the mills. Much early Australian furniture was made from cedar.
    The timber of the Tweed Valley was felled close to the river banks and then was tied and
    floated downstream to the river mouth for shipping to the big cities. The river provided the
    only means of removing the timber, because the felled trees were so bulky.
    By the 1870s, the cedar industry was in decline. Land cleared for farming was on the
    increase and easily obtainable, and large cedar trees were becoming scarce. It was purely
    an extractive industry, which put nothing back. Given that many original trees were
    thousands of years old, it would have been hundreds of years before the plantings could
    have been harvested in any case.
    Question 47
    Tweed Valley cedar was valued in colonial Australia for all the following reasons EXCEPT:
    A: the trees were easy to fell and remove.
    B: the timber was sought after for furniture making.
    C: the timber was light in weight.
    D: the timber was prized for its colour and grain variations.
    E: the tree trunks were long and straight.
    Question 48
    Which of the following can we say caused the decline of the cedar industry?
    A: Suitable trees closer to the river grew scarce.
    B: Clearing for farming land was reducing the rainforest.
    C: Felled trees were not replaced.
    D: A and B together.
    E: B and C together.
    Question 49
    A tour leader needs to be a gregarious person.
    The word gregarious in the above sentence means:
    A: well-travelled B: retiring C: adaptable D: chatty E: companionable
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    Question 50
    Please read the following sentence.
    When she hit the ball, she had no idea where it was going….
    If we change the start of the sentence to:
    She had no idea where the ball was going……..
    What will the ending be?
    A: after she hit the ball.
    B: while hitting it.
    C: when she hit it.
    D: when the ball was hit.
    E: None of these.

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